I have 2 tasks: To show that $A^{-1} = A^T$ and that $A^T = A^{-1}$.
So I proved the first case with:
$$A^T A = I$$
and later according to uniqueness of inverse for matrices we can say that they are equal.
But what about the second case $A^T = A^{-1}$? Is not it the same thing, I mean, can I do the same thing for this case too or I should prove that in another way?
UPDATE
Let p0, p1, p2 ∈ R3 be three vectors that form an orthonormal coordinate system, i.e. pT0 p1 = 0, pT1 p2 = 0, pT2 p0 = 0, and ∥p0∥ = ∥p1∥ = ∥p2∥ = 1. Similarly, let q0, q1, q2 ∈ R3 also be three vectors that form an orthonormal coordinate system.
This statement is false in general; a linear operator $A$ is called orthogonal exactly when $A^T = A^{-1}$.