What is the difference in meaning between these two antecedents ...?

Question

$$ (\forall x)(Mx \to Wx) \to \quad... \tag{1} $$ $$ (\forall x)(Mx \land Wx) \to \quad... \tag{2} $$

The consequent is clear: $\, (\exists y)(Fy \land Sy)$

The statement is:

If every member of the bar is wrong, then there is a federal court which will sustain the decision.

Answer 1

The difference is that :

$(∀x)(Mx ∧ Wx)$

means :

"every (object in the universe) is a member of the bar and is wrong".

This is not what we want asserting the conditional with antecedent :

"If every member of the bar is wrong, ..."

The first one is FALSE if there is somewhere an individual that is not a member of the bar, while the second one is TRUE also if there are individuals that are not members of the bar, provided that every individual that is member of he bar is wrong.

Answer 2

The first one is what you want. It says that if $x$ is a member of the bar, then $x$ is wrong, which is what's intended. The second one says everyone is a member of the bar, and wrong.