I have shown that the infinite product $$\prod_{p \in \mathcal{P}}\frac{p^2+1}{p^2-1}$$ is equal to $\frac{5}{2}$ (pretty remarkable!). I have checked this numerically with Wolfram Alpha for up to $500000$ primes and it seems true.
I was wondering if this result is recorded anywhere?
Also if true, does this mean that there aren't infinitely many primes of form $p^2+1$?
From MO: $$\frac{2}{5}=\frac{36}{90}=\frac{6^2}{90}=\frac{\zeta(4)}{\zeta(2)^2}=\prod_p\frac{(1-\frac{1}{p^2})^2}{(1-\frac{1}{p^4})}=\prod_p \left(\frac{(p^2-1)^2}{(p^2+1)(p^2-1)}\right)=\prod_p\left(\frac{p^2-1}{p^2+1}\right)$$
$$\implies \prod_p \left(\frac{p^2-1}{p^2+1}\right)=\frac{2}{5}$$