So the directional derivative is defined as,
$$f_d(x) = \lim_{ s \to 0^+} \frac{f(x+sd) - f(x)}{s}$$
If $f(x) = ax$, then $f_d(x) = a\cdot d, d \in \mathbb{R}$
But why does this make sense? What is the interpretation of $f_d(x)$?
My rate of change/slope is a constant $a$ no matter where I am on the $x$-axis.
So why is it that increasing $d$ will increase my directional derivative, when the slope is constant throughout?
To understand directional derivatives, let us compare it with Fréchet derivative, commonly used in real analysis and calculus.
Let $f$ be real-valued function defined on an inner-product linear space $V$, then the Fréchet derivative at $x\in V$ is defined as a vector $ \nabla f(x) \in V$ such that the directional derivative for all $d\in V$, can be written as:
$$f_d(x) = \lim_{ s \to 0^+} \frac{f(x+sd) - f(x)}{s}= \langle \nabla f(x),d \rangle \forall d \in V$$
From this, for the case $V=\mathbb R$, you can see that
whit $d=y-x$ for any $y \in \mathbb R$. In particular, for a linear function $f(x)=ax$, $f_d(x)=a\times d$.
For $V=\mathbb {R}^n$, $\nabla f(x)$ is broadly called the gradient vector at $x$, given by
$$\nabla f(x)=\left(\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_1}, \dots, \frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_n} \right)^T$$
The same interpretation for $V=\mathbb {R}^n$ cannot be presented for all $d$ with $\|d\|=1$ as the norm induced by the common inner product $ \langle x,y \rangle =x^{T}y$ is Euclidean. However, for $d=(x+e_i)-x$ again we have:
$$f_{d=e_i}(x)=\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\times 1$$
where $e_i$ is a vector whose $i$th element is 1, and other elements are 0.
Hope this is helpful!