I know that the notation isn't very important, but I am curious. If I have the following alternating series: $$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(-1)^n}{n!} $$ Which of the following notations is the most correct (or the best) for represent the previous series?
\begin{align} &\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{4!}+\cdots \tag{1} \\[6pt] &\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{4!}-\cdots \tag{2} \\[6pt] &\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{4!}\pm\cdots \tag{3} \\[6pt] &\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{4!}+-\cdots \tag{4} \\[6pt] &\frac{1}{0!}-\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}-\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{4!}\cdots \tag{5} \\ \end{align}
I think that is the equation $(3)$, but I am not sure.
Converting a comment to an answer ...
(2) is most common. (See, for instance, some examples in Wikipedia's "Taylor series" entry.) So long as you've included enough terms to establish the pattern, you're fine. In cases where the pattern may not be entirely clear, the sigma notation is best; alternatively, you can provide this hybrid form $$\frac{1}{0!}−\frac{1}{1!}+\frac{1}{2!}−\frac{1}{3!}+\frac{1}{4!}−\cdots+\frac{(−1)^n}{n!}+\cdots$$