A closed map between topological spaces maps closed sets to closed sets, while a closed linear operator between Banach spaces has a closed graph in the product topology.
Is this just a co-incidental use of the same "closed" terminology or is there some relationship between the two ?
As Eric Wofsey pointed out, the terms are just coincidence. A closed mapping and a closed linear operator are not equivalent when considering a linear operator between two Banach spaces.
To show that they are unrelated, you might want to do the following exercises, which is Exercise 1.74 in Megginson's An Introduction to Banach Space Theory: