Let's say we alter the definition of the radian, for example 1 radian = 1 degree and there are 360 radians in a circle, then one consequence that I can think of is that the Taylor expansions of trigonometric functions no longer work unless altered accordingly. $$\sin x = x-{x^3\over3!}+{x^5\over5!}-{x^7\over7!}+\cdots $$ should instead, in order to work, become $$\sin x= \left({\pi\over 180}\right)x-\left({\pi\over 180}\right)^3\left({x^3\over3!}\right)+\left({\pi\over 180}\right)^5\left({x^5\over5!}\right)-\cdots$$
My question is: did mathematicians recognize the elegance of defining $1 \operatorname{radian}={180^\circ/\pi}$ in Taylor expansions or also in other stuff (that it simplifies things nicely), or did the said definition come before anything else, or is there other significance to that? It is not important to question an already well-defined structure but I am just curious, thank you.
Historically speaking, it is not likely that beautifying the Taylor expansion of sine was “the” reason for defining the radian. After all, the radian was defined by the relationship $r\theta=s$, which is incredibly helpful in physics. Perhaps un-coincidentally, the man who defined the radian in the 1870s, James Thomson, was the brother of the famous physicist Lord Kelvin.
The English mathematician Brook Taylor died almost 150 years beforehand, so I suppose that Taylor expansions could have been considered. In fact, this is one of the reasons we continue to use the radian today. Only when the arguments of sine and cosine are expressed in radians is it true that $\frac{d}{dx}\sin x=\cos x$ and that $\frac{d}{dx}\cos x=-\sin x$, and these relationships are how the Taylor expansion of sine is defined.