What is the technical reason that $\mathcal{L}(e^{-zt})=\int_{0^-}^\infty e^{-(x+\alpha+i(\beta+y))t}dt$ diverges when $x+\alpha=0$?

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Let $z=\alpha+i\beta$ and $s=x+iy$ be complex numbers.

Consider the calculation of the Laplace transform of $e^{-zt}$.

$$\mathcal{L}(e^{-zt})=\int_{0^-}^\infty e^{-(x+\alpha+i(\beta+y))t}dt$$

Suppose $x+\alpha=0$. That is $x=-\alpha$ which means $\text{Re}(s)=-\text{Re}(z)$.

Then the integral becomes

$$\mathcal{L}(e^{-zt})=\int_{0^-}^\infty e^{-i(\beta+y)t}dt$$

$$=\left . \frac{e^{-i(\beta+y)t}}{i(\beta+y)}\right |_0^\infty$$

$$=\left .\frac{1}{\beta+y}e^{-i\left (\frac{\pi}{2}+(\beta+y)t\right)}\right |_0^\infty$$

This integral does not go to $\pm \infty$.

What is the technical reason why this integral diverges?