$lim_{x\to\ 1} \frac{f(x)}{lnx}$
$f(x)= \int_1^u e^{-sin t}dt$
$u=x^2$
I found out that limit will be $\frac{0}{lnx}=0$ is that correct?
$lim_{x\to\ 1} \frac{f(x)}{lnx}$
$f(x)= \int_1^u e^{-sin t}dt$
$u=x^2$
I found out that limit will be $\frac{0}{lnx}=0$ is that correct?
Copyright © 2021 JogjaFile Inc.
By L'Hôpital's rule, one gets $$ \lim_{x \to 1}f(x)=\lim_{x \to 1}\frac{\left(\int_1^{x^2}e^{-\sin(t)}dt\right)'}{(\ln x)'}=\lim_{x \to 1}\frac{2x \cdot e^{-\sin(x^2)}}{\frac1x}=2e^{-\sin(1)}. $$