The reason I ask this question is that I want to show that: \begin{equation*} \binom{\frac{1}{2}}{k} = -2\frac{1}{k}\binom{2k-2}{k-1}\left(-\frac{1}{4} \right)^k \end{equation*}
\begin{align*} \binom{\frac{1}{2}}{k} &= \frac{1}{k!}\left[ \frac{1}{2} \left(\frac{1}{2} - 1 \right) \left(\frac{1}{2} - 2 \right) \cdots \left(\frac{1}{2} - k + 1 \right)\right] \\ &= \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{2}\left[ \left(-\frac{1}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{3}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{5}{2}\right) \cdots \left(\frac{1-2k+2}{2}\right) \right] \\ &= \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{2}\left[ \left(-\frac{1}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{3}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{5}{2}\right) \cdots \left(\frac{1-2k+2}{2}\right) \right] \\ &= \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{2}\left[ \left(-\frac{1}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{3}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{5}{2}\right) \cdots \left(\frac{-2k+3}{2}\right) \right] \\ &= \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{2}\left[ \left(-\frac{1}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{3}{2}\right) \left(-\frac{5}{2}\right) \cdots \left(-\frac{2k - 3}{2}\right) \right] \\ &= \frac{1}{k!}\frac{1}{2}(-1)^{k - 1} \frac{1}{2^{k - 1}}\left(1 \times 3 \times 5 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3) \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{k - 1} \left(1 \times 3 \times 5 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3) \right) \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{2 \times 4 \times 6 \times \cdots \times (2k - 2)} \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{2 \times 4 \times 6 \times \cdots \times (2k - 2)} \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{2^{k - 1} (k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{k - 1} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{k - 1} (-1)^{k-1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{(k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)^{2k - 2} (-1)^{k-1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{(k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( \frac{1}{4} \right)^{k - 1} (-1)^{k-1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{(k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{k!} \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{4} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{(k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{4} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{k!(k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{4} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{1 \times 2 \times 3 \times 4 \times \cdots \times (2k - 3)}{k(k-1)!(k - 1)!} \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \left( -\frac{1}{4} \right)^{k - 1} \frac{(2k - 3)!}{k(k-1)!(k - 1)!} \\ \end{align*}
However, the last step in the proof above has $(2k-3)!$ in the numerator instead of $(2k-2)!$ in the numerator.
A definition of binomial coefficient that suits your computation follows naturally from $$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k! (n-k)!} = \frac{n(n-1)\ldots(n-k+1)}{k!} = \prod_{m=1}^k \frac{n-m+1}{m},$$ which works when the lower index is a nonnegative integer (if $k = 0$, then the product is empty and equals 1).
Consequently, $$\begin{align*} \binom{1/2}{k} &= \prod_{m=1}^k \frac{1/2-m+1}{m} = \frac{1}{2} \prod_{m=2}^k \frac{3-2m}{2m} \\ &= \frac{1}{2} \prod_{m=1}^{k-1} \frac{-(2m-1)(2m)}{4m(m+1)} \\ &= \tfrac{1}{2}\left(-\tfrac{1}{4}\right)^{k-1} \frac{(2(k-1))!}{(k-1)! k!} \\ &= -\frac{2}{k}(-4)^{-k} \binom{2(k-1)}{k-1}. \end{align*}$$