What is wrong with this definition of Fourier coefficients?

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something is wrong with what I am doing. I'm either:

  • Using the wrong definition of something(but from Wikipedia, I don't think I am).
  • Did some mistake in my calculations (also don't think so)

So I was trying to do this: Evaluate $\sum^\infty_{n=1} \frac{1}{n^4} $using Parseval's theorem (Fourier series)

What I started doing:

$$a_0= \frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} x^2dx= \frac{2}{\pi} \int_{0}^{\pi} x^2\,dx =\frac{2 \pi^2}{3}$$ here it is already different from that topic. But from wikipedia and from my classes this is what I am supposed to be calculating. I suppose I'm doing something wrong in the definition of the parseval identity. Using my definition of $a_0$ am I suppose to sum $a_0^2 + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^2$, $\frac{a_0^2}{2}+ \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^2$ or $\frac{a_0^2}{4}+\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n^2$ ?

For clarification I define: $$a_n=\frac{1}{\pi} \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)\cos(nx)dx$$ whenever $f$ is defined in $[-\pi,\pi]$

My fourier series is then written as: $$f=\frac{a_0}{2} + \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(a_n\cos(nx)+b_n\sin(nx))$$

I know that in this specific case $b_n$ is zero.

So what I am doing wrong?

EDIT: just for the sake of completeness my $a_n$ was also off by a factor of 2, it was $a_n= \frac{4 (-1)^n}{n^2}$