I saw this statement: $${n \choose r}=\sum_{n_{r-2}=0}^{\left(n+1-r\right)}\left(\sum_{n_{r-3}=0}^{\left(n+1-r\right)-n_{r-2}}\left(\sum_{n_{r-4}=0}^{\left(n+1-r\right)-\left(n_{r-3}+n_{r-2}\right)}\left(...\left(\sum_{n_{1}=0}^{\left(n+1-r\right)-\sum_{k=2}^{r-2}n_{k}}\left(\sum_{n_{0}=0}^{\left(n+1-r\right)-\sum_{k=1}^{r-2}n_{k}}\left(n_{0}\right)\right)\right)\right)\right)\right)$$ somewhere, and I was curious, why is this statement true?
2026-03-29 16:19:06.1774801146
What makes this equation equal to the combination equation
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The index $n_{r-2}$ of the left-most sum indicates to consider showing the validity of the sum for integral $n\geq r\geq 2$. In order to see what's going on we look at first at a small example, let's say $r=4$. This seems to be small enough to be manageable, but should be large enough to see the essential steps.
Comment:
In (1) we change the order of summation of the left-most sum by exchanging $n_2\to n-3-n_2$.
In (2) we change the order of the second sum $n_1\to n_2-n_1$.
In (3) we observe the index $n_0=0$ can be skipped, since it does not contribute anything. This does also hold for the other indices.
In (4) we do a small trick and write $n_0$ as summation of $n_0$ times $1$.
In (5) we write the index region more conveniently. We observe the number of summands given by the index range \begin{align*} 1\leq n_{-1}\leq n_0\leq n_1\leq n_2\leq n-3 \end{align*} is the number of ordered $5$-tuples $(n_{-1},n_0,n_1,n_2,n_3)$ between $1$ and $n-3$. This number is given by the binomial coefficient in (6).