I can figure out how you would calculate the product of the cosines of $\pi$ when there are no coefficients to get $1$ (trivially). I cannot however understand what rule is used/how we arrive at $(-1)^{(n+m)}$ for when we have two different coefficients of $\pi$, namely $n$ and $m$.
2026-04-06 22:16:59.1775513819
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What rule is used when calculating $\cos(n \cdot \pi)\cdot\cos(m \cdot \pi)$
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The cosine function has period $2\pi$: $\cos(x+2\pi)=\cos x$ for all $x$. Therefore $$1=\cos0=\cos2\pi=\cos4\pi=\cdots$$ and $$-1=\cos\pi=\cos3\pi=\cos5\pi=\cdots.$$ Then $\cos n\pi=1$ when $n$ is even, and $\cos n\pi=-1$ if $n$ is odd.
In short, $\cos n\pi=(-1)^n$ for integers $n$.
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$\cos \pi = -1$ and $\cos 2 \pi = 1$. Which means, every odd multiple of $\pi$ gives $-1$ as the value for $\cos$ and every even multiple of $\pi$ gives the value $1$. Thus, in general, we write
$$\cos n \pi = \left( -1 \right)^n$$
which settles the problem of $n$ begin odd or even. Therefore, in your question, what we have is
$$\cos m \pi \cdot \cos n \pi = \left( -1 \right)^m \cdot \left( -1 \right)^n = \left( -1 \right)^{n + m}$$
We have that
that is
thus
$$\cos(n \cdot \pi)\cdot \cos(m \cdot \pi)=(-1)^n(-1)^m=(-1)^{n+m}$$