I noticed that $(\mathbb Z_n,+)$ and $(\mathbb Z_n,*)$ are not the same thing. For example 2 is not invertible in $(\mathbb Z_6,*)$. However, since $\bar2+\bar4=\bar0$, thus it is invertible in $(\mathbb Z_6,+)$.
I found the following problems:
- Am I right? If so, why does any book not mention this difference which is very important?
- When we study groups, what's the standard operation of $\mathbb Z_n$ when the operation is omitted?
- When we study rings, do we generally use $(\mathbb Z_n,+)$ to be the abelian group of the ring $(\mathbb Z_n,+,*)$?
- If I work with $(\mathbb Z_n,+)$ I would lose these theorems which I proved for $(\mathbb Z_n,*)$?
- An element $a$ in $(\mathbb Z_n,*)$ is an unit iff $a$ and $n$ are coprimes
- An element $a$ in $(\mathbb Z_n,*)$ is an zero divisor iff $a$ and $n$ aren't coprimes
I'm sure there are a lot of student with this same doubt.
I really need help.
Thanks a lot.
1) Usually, $\,(\Bbb Z_n\,,\,+)\;$ would represent an additive cyclic group, which elements are usually represented as $\,\{\overline0\,,\,\overline 1\,\ldots\,\overline{n-1}\}\;$ or as $\,\{0,1,2,...,n-1\}\pmod n\,$ .
The set $\,(\Bbb Z_n\,,\,+\,,\,\cdot)\,$ represents the ring of residues modulo $\,n\,$ , with the same addition as above and multiplication modulo $\,n\,$ .
The set of invertible elements in the above ring is usually denoted by $\,\Bbb Z_n^*\;$, and sometimes $\,(\Bbb Z_n^*,\cdot)\;$ , and it is the set of elements in $\,\{0,1,2,...,n-1\}\pmod n\,$ which are coprime with $\,n\,$ (and non-zero, to avoid problems). This is a group under the usual multiplication in the above ring.
Of course, what you prove for a set under some operation may, and may not, be true for the same set, or a subset, under a different operation. Perhaps it'll be good you tell us what things were you thinking about.