When do binary functions have non trivial meromorphic homomorphisms and why?

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We turn our attention to arbitrary meromorphic binary operations $B(x,y): \mathbb{C}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$

I was considering so called "homomorphism" functional equations of the form $$ F(B(x,y)) = B(F(x), F(y)) $$

Some simple examples include

$$ F(x-y) = F(x) - F(y) $$

Which has meromorphic solutions $F(x) = c*x$ for your choice of complex constant $c$.

$$ F(x/y) = F(x)/F(y) $$

Which has mermorphic solutions $F(x) = x^c$ for your choice of complex constant $c$.

Now here's where things tricky. Suppose we look into

$$ F\left( \frac{1}{a-b} \right) = \frac{1}{F(a) - F(b)} $$

By setting $a = y + h$, $b = h$ its easy to see then that

$$ \lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \ h F \left( \frac{1}{h} \right) = \frac{1}{F'(y)} $$

Regardless whether the left hand side is well defined or not it clearly does not depend on $y$ at all, so any such $F$ must be piece wise constant and outside of the trivial solution $F(x) = x$ cannot be meromorphic.

So here's the question:

Under WHAT conditions on the binary operator $B(x,y)$ does the equation

$$ F(B(x,y)) = B(F(x), F(y)) $$

Have a non trivial meromorphic solution $F(x)$?

Possible Direction:

It's interesting that while $F \left( \frac{1}{a-b} \right) = \frac{1}{F(a) - F(b)}$ doesn't admit non trivial solutions that the equation $$ F \left( \frac{1}{\frac{1}{a} - \frac{1}{b}} \right) = \frac{1}{\frac{1}{F(a)} - \frac{1}{F(b)}} $$ DOES admit non trivial solutions, namely $f(x) = cx$

It would seem to me based on all this evidence that $B(x,y)$ having an identity and being associative might be very important.