Let $A$ be a suplattices, and suppose we have a family $\{a_i\}_{i\in I}\subseteq A.$
Is $\bigcup_{i\in I}(\operatorname{\downarrow}a_i) = \operatorname{\downarrow} \sup_{i\in I}(a_i)$ in general?
Here $\downarrow a$ means the principal downward closed sets (order ideal) generated by $a.$
I believe this assertion is wrong in general, and my counter example is $I=\{1, 2\}$ and $A=\{0\lt a_1\lt 1, 0\lt a_2\lt a\lt 1\}.$ Then $\operatorname{\downarrow} a_1\cup\operatorname{\downarrow} a_2=\{0, a_1, a_2\}$ while $\operatorname{\downarrow}(a_1\lor a_2)=A.$
Am I correct?
Are there any obvious conditions on $A$ or $\{a_i\}_{i\in I}$ that would guaranteed the property in the above question?
I am looking for a condition like $A$ being distributive. This sounds like a very vague question. But, hopefully more experienced people can tell me something useful.
This is virtually never true. Since $\sup_{i\in I}(a_i)\in \operatorname{\downarrow} \sup_{i\in I}(a_i)$, the only way your equality can hold is if $\sup_{i\in I}(a_i)\in \operatorname{\downarrow}a_i$ for some $i$. That is, you must have $\sup_{i\in I}(a_i)\leq a_i$ for some $i$, which means that $a_i$ is greater than equal to every $a_j$, so your family $(a_i)$ must have a greatest element. (And of course, if the family does have a greatest element $a_i$, then your equality does hold since both sides are just equal to $\operatorname{\downarrow}a_i$.)