where is the triangle inequality hidden in "positive semidefinite"-ness

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For reference, this is a result used in the "Are These Distances Euclidean?" chapter of Matousek's Thirty-three Miniatures.

By "triangle inequality," he's referring to the fact that: if you want three points p,q,r to have some fixed distances between each other (can be a different distance for each pair), then a necessary condition for the existence of such points is that they must satisfy the triangle inequality.

(So I believe this theorem is giving something stronger than triangle inequality, that ends up being necessary and sufficient for this "points exist given distances" problem.)

I did some calculations, but haven't really gotten anywhere...I have:

  • $g_{0i}, g_{i0} = 0$
  • $g_{ii} = m_{0i} = \| p_0 - p_i \| $

and then some other calculations that seem way too in the weeds.