Let $A$ be the unit circle. I know that:
$\iint_A (x^2 + y^2) \,dx\,dy$ = $\int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{2 \pi} r^2\ d\theta \ dr $
I'd like to know why wouldn't it be:
$\iint_A (x^2 + y^2) \,dx\,dy$ = $\int_{0}^{1} \int_{2 \pi}^{0} r^2\ d\theta \ dr $
My thinking is that the notation $\iint_A $ comes with an implicit assumption about the order of integration, though I fail to see how this carries over when we transform to polar coordinates or more generally $(u,v)$-coordinates.
Any pointers would be great. Thanks :)
The correct set up, by definition and convention, is the following one
$$\iint_A (x^2 + y^2) \,dx\,dy = \int_{0}^{1} \int_{0}^{2 \pi} r^3\ d\theta \ dr $$
Reversing the order for $\theta$ is equivalent to make a change of variable
then
$$\int_{0}^{1} \int_0^{2 \pi} r^3\ d\theta \ dr=-\int_{0}^{1} \int_{2 \pi}^0 r^3\ d\alpha \ dr$$