$1/\infty$ tends to 0.
$\mathbf {It\ doesn't \ satisfy\ the\ inverse \ process\ of\ multiplication \ and \\division\ i.e} $
$\infty * 0$ is undefined or indeterminate.
So why $1/\infty$ is not indeterminate like other indeterminate $0/0$ , $\infty/\infty,..$
Thanks.
If $a_n \to 0$ and $b_n \to 0$ then $\frac {a_n} {b_n}$ may converge to any number or may not even converge. Same thing is true if $a_n \to \infty$ and $b_n \to \infty$. But if $a_n \to 1$ and $b_n \to \infty$ then $\frac {a_n} {b_n} \to 0$