This is what I understand about conics being projectively equivalent.
Two conics $C1=V(F)$ and $C2=V(G)$ are projectively equivalent if there is an invertible matrix $A$ such that $F(X,Y,Z)=0$ iff $G(X,Y,Z)=0$ where $[X Y Z] = [X' Y' Z']A.$
This seems as though what we are doing is using $A$ to change the coordinate system. Wouldn't this be the same as shifting/rotating/moving our coordinate axes in some way?
But then couldn't we move the coordinate axes to intersect a cone in a degenerate way? Since conics are formed from intersecting a plane with a cone and it's easy to visualize moving a plane which intersects the cone to create a (nondegenerate) hyperbola to where its intersection draws out a (degenerate) pair of lines for example.
I'm having trouble with understanding this visually.
Thanks for your help.
One possible answer: A projective transformation preserves collinearity of points. A degenerate conic contains collinear points, a non-degenerate does not. So these two cannot be projectively equivalent.
A second answer: if you imagine the embedding in 3-space, then your projective plane can be visualized as the intersection of an affine (drawing) plane with linear spaces of suitable dimension: one-dimensional for points and two-dimensional for lines. (That visualization drops points at infinity, but that's irrelevant here.) In this setup, a non-degenerate conic is the intersection of your drawing plane with a double cone which is centered at the origin. A degenerate conic, on the other hand, is the intersection of the plane with a pair of planes through the origin. Sure, you could describe the same conic using some other cone, and then moving the coordinate system would lead to a degenerate situation. But describing the conic section in this way would depend on the representatives of the points, and therefore would not be well defined in a homogeneous world.