Why are these equations describing the variance of residuals equivalent (single-factor model in finance)?

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Residual Equations

The above equations describe the residual variance in the single-factor model in finance. I'm struggling to understand why they are equivalent, specifically why the fourth and fifth equations from the left are equal.

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This follows from linearity of expectation and the fact that $Ee_i=0$. The latter implies that $\sigma^2_{e_i}=E(e_i^2)$.