I'm not sure how to rigourously back up my intuition that the curves given by $x^2-x=0$ and $xy=0$ in $\mathbb{A}^2_k$ are not isomorphic.
If I denote the varieties as $V_1=V(xy)$ and $V_2=V(x^2-x)$, then $V_1$ is the coordinate axes, and $V_2$ is the disjoint of the vertical lines $x=0$ and $x=1$. I suspect these curves are not isomorphic since the axes cross each other at the origin.
I know two algebraic varieties $V_1$ and $V_2$ are isomorphic if we have inverse regular maps $\varphi:V_1\to V_2$ and $\psi:V_2\to V_1$. I think there should be a problem defining inverse regular maps near $(0,0)$ so that no such regular maps could exist. Why are these curves not isomorphic?
a) The curve $V_2$ is disconnected because it is the disjoint union of its two non-empty disjont Zariski open subsets $x\neq 0$ and $x\neq 1$.
You can also see it algebraically: an affine algebraic variety is connected iff its ring of regular functions $A$ has no idempotent element ($a^2=a$) apart from $0$ and $1$.
This is not the case for $A_2=\frac{k[X,Y]}{(X^2-X)}$, since $x$= class of $X$ is such an idempotent $\neq0,1$.
b) A topological space is connected as soon as it is the union of two connected subspaces with non-empty intersection.
You can apply this to the two subspaces $x=0,y=0$ of $V_1$, both isomorphic to the connected space $\mathbb A^1_k$, and intersecting in $(0,0)$.
Here the algebraic criterion can also be applied, noticing that every element of $A_1=\frac{k[X,Y]}{(XY)}$ can uniquely be written as $c+xa(x)+yb(y)$, but the (easy) calculation is not particularly illuminating.