Why borel set over complex is the same as real plane?

159 Views Asked by At

Why borel set $\mathcal{B}_\mathbb{C} = \mathcal{B}_{\mathbb{R}^2}$

1

There are 1 best solutions below

1
On BEST ANSWER

$(x,y) \to x+iy$ is a homeomorphism from $\mathbb R^{2}$ onto $\mathbb C$. Any homeomorphism preserves open sets, hence also Borel sets.