I had the same question 10 years ago when I was studying high school. I didn't understand it and I gave up the math. 10 year ago, I needed to work with calculus during work and this question came to find me again. This question is really silly but why?
Why can't I simply substitute $\frac{d(\ln(x))}{dx}$ with $\frac{d(x)}{dx}$?
I.e. let $\ln(x)=x$, as $\frac{dx}{dx}= 1$, why not $\frac{d(\ln(x))}{dx}= 1$?
On the other hand, why can Taylor series such as $\sin(x^2)$ let $x=x^2$ and substitute into Taylor series of $\sin(x)$? In Taylor series, we need to differentiate the function too. Why there is such a difference?
When can I do substitution and why I can't? I can't figure it out.
Just entertaining the notion to show you the mistake in your reasoning rather than justifying the method! If we have this problem:
$$ \frac{d(\ln(x))}{dx} $$ and we let $y=\ln(x) $, which implies that $x=e^y$
then we can rewrite:
$$ \frac{d(\ln(x))}{dx}= \frac{d(y)}{de^y} $$ again, I don't think this is useful to do for any practical purposes, but it highlights the error in your argument.