My textbooks introduces a concept of a 'group'.
As an obvious example, equilateral triangle ABC is used along with all the 6 symmetries it has. Say, I got $f : \{ (A, B); (B, C); (C, A); \}$. It is unary since depends upon exactly 1 argument. Then the composition $f \circ f$ considered: $f \circ f : \{ (A, f[f(A)]); (B, f([f(B)]); (C, f([f(C)]); \}$, which is still unary, for exmaple: $(f \circ f) (A) = f (f (A)) = f(B) = C$. And then my textbooks jumps outright to the group's definition, saying that there should exist a binary operation and whatnot more.
As far as I understand, a binary operation is such $f(x, y)$ that $y$ can not be computed even though one knows $x$'s value. So both variables are independent, like $T \land F$ from the Boolean algebra. This requirement does not hold for the case above.
So, could you help me out with a confusion I described? Maybe it makes sense to consider some other groups like $<\mathbb{Z}, +>$ for clarification?
From your comments on the other answer, it might be less confusing to consider the group $(\mathbb{Z}, +)$. Here the elements of the group are numbers, and addition is clearly a binary operation: you need to add two numbers $x+y$.
In the case of triangle symmetries, the elements of the group are themselves unary operations on the vertices, and composition is a binary operation on unary operations. Much more confusing.