Oftentimes, when one is calculating the integral over the real line for an irritating integrand, it is convenient to use contour integration in the complex plane. Then, we very often find ourselves integrating over the half-circle in the upper (or, less canonically, lower) half-plane. These almost always (colloquial, not Lebesgue language) go to zero. What is the intuitive reason behind this? I see no reason to expect it, but of course I understand that we usually end up with
$$\dfrac{R^n}{R^m+\mathcal{O}(R^l)},$$
where $l<m$ and $n<m$, and sending $R\to\infty$ is why it goes to $0$, but what intuitive way of thinking can lead us there? I'm looking for something along the lines of "of course the upper half-circle contributes zero because (short quip)", similar to how I tell my students that the dependence of the implicit derivative on both $x$ and $y$ for a circle makes sense, since circles are not functions and we need both values to determine which point we are talking about.
I am aware of this question:
why does the circle at infinity not contribute the integral?
but it dealt more with the specific problem than the general intuition, I feel.
This question also exists, and is helpful:
Intuitive reason for why many complex integrals vanish when the path is "blown-up"?
But I still think such intuition must exist somewhere, and found the answers there helpful, but not satisfying.
It could be that the phenomenon you ask about is an illusion; perhaps it "almost always" happens for the integrals that can be done this way, not for a random improper integral. A thoughtful calculus student thinks that most continuous functions are differentiable, while some do not have antiderivatives, when the reality is just the opposite.