We are learning about Fourier series expansion, and we were given this equation: $$x(t)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}a_n e^{j2\pi n f_0 t}$$ where $f_0$ is the frequency of the function $x(t)$
I only know a little linear algebra, but I understand that this equation (sort of...?) says the set of complex exponentials: $$\{ e^{j2\pi n f_0 t}:n\in\mathbb{Z}\}$$ forms an orthonormal basis of the vector space in which $x(t)$ resides. And I get that this means that we can represent $x(t)$ as a linear combination of the basis functions of its overarching vector space.
But I am very confused as to why complex exponentials with only integer multiples, $2\pi n f_0 t$, of the function's frequency suffice to form a basis for this space--why not the set of complex exponentials of ALL frequencies, i.e. $n\in\mathbb{R}$?
Said another way--Why does it only take the set of all complex exponentials with integer multiples of $f_0$ to express the $x(t)$?.
Another, related question--what exactly is the vector space that $x(t)$ is a member of? Is it tied directly to $f_0$?
Can anyone shed some light on this?
You only need integer multiples of a single base frequency because $x(t)$ is assumed to be periodic with period $\frac1{f_0}.$
If $x(t)$ weren't assumed to be periodic, this wouldn't work (and you'd need to try to move to something like the Fourier integral).