Why do they add addition $\mathbb{E} (s_1^-)<\infty$ when they have $\{ s_n, \mathcal{F}_n,n\ge 1\}$ be a submartingale?

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By definition, if $\{ s_n, \mathcal{F}_n,n\ge 1\}$ is a submartingale then $\mathbb{E} (|s_n|)<\infty$ for all $n\in \mathbb{N}^*$. But according to a arcticle, in a theorem, author add addition: $\mathbb{E} (s_1^-)<\infty$. I don't understand why they did it. This is content of that theorem: enter image description here

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