This question comes from Matt E's answer in
What is the intuition behind the concept of Tate twists?
He remarks that $H_2(\mathbb P^1) \cong H_1(\mathbb A^1\setminus \{0\})$, but I don't see where this comes from. Could someone give more detail?
2026-03-27 19:09:21.1774638561
Why do we have $H_2(\mathbb P^1) \cong H_1(\mathbb A^1\setminus \{0\})$?
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