I can't figure out why we need the definition of a 'covariant derivative along a curve', i.e. I can't see why we can't use a 'linear connection' even when the vector fields are not extendible.
I'm reading Lee's book on Riemannian manifolds. After he has shown that $\nabla$ depends on X and Y only around an open set, he defines the Christoffel symbols through the expression $\nabla_{E^j}E^i$, where $E^j,E^i$ are elements of a local frame, i.e. vector fields defined only locally on an open set (and thus not necessarily extendible). Likewise, it is show that $(\nabla_{X}Y)_p$ in fact only depends on $X$ through its value at p and on Y through its values on a curve through p whose tangent at p is $X_p$. Therefore, if $\gamma$ is a smooth curve, $(\nabla_{\dot{\gamma}}Y)_p$ should be well-defined, even if Y is only defined along $\gamma$ and isn't extendible.
Where am I wrong? Thanks a lot.
I think you are right that one could make sense out of $\nabla_{\gamma'(t)}Y$ even if $Y$ is a nonextendible vectorfield along a curve $\gamma: I\to M$. One could try to do this as follows:
If $\gamma'(t)\neq 0$ then there is a neighbourhood $J$ of $t$ such that $\gamma_{|J}$ is an embedding. We then can find a globally defined vectorfield $\tilde Y$ on $M$ such that $Y$ and $\tilde Y \circ\gamma$ agree locally arround $t$ and then define $\nabla_{\gamma'(t)}Y= \nabla_{\gamma'(t)}\tilde Y$ which will not depend on the choice of $\tilde Y$
If $\gamma'(t)= 0$ we simply define $\nabla_{\gamma'(t)}Y=0$.
Now one can show that in the first case this definition agrees with the usual definition of the covariant derivative of $Y$ along $\gamma$. But in the second case it doesn't:
Consider for example $\gamma:I\to\mathbb R^2, t\mapsto(t^2,t^3)$ and $Y(t)=\gamma'(t)$ where $\mathbb R^2$ is equipped with the Levi-Civita connection . Then using standard coordinates on $\mathbb R^2$ we have $Y'=2t(\partial_1\circ\gamma)+3t^2(\partial_2\circ\gamma)$. Using the leibniz rule and the agreement with extendible vectorfields we see that the covariant derivative along $\gamma$ is given by $2(\partial_1\circ\gamma)+6t(\partial_2\circ\gamma)$. Especially at $t=0$ it is non-zero even if $\gamma'(0)=0$.