What I think is that we need to sum up all the values on the curve and we can only do that by integration. Is that correct?
2026-03-29 09:09:33.1774775373
Why do we use integration to calculate the average of a function?
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Suppose we want to get the average of $f(x)$ for $a \le x \le b$.
As a first estimate, we might use $A_2 =\dfrac{f(a)+f(b)}{2} $.
Adding another point, $A_3 =\dfrac{f(a)+f((a+b)/2)+f(b)}{3} $.
If we use $n$ points, we get $A_n =\frac1{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} f(a+k(b-a)/n) $.
In the limit, if it exists, we get $A =\lim_{n \to \infty} A_n =\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac1{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} f(a+k(b-a)/n) $.
If $f(x)$ is nicely behaved, $\int_a^b f(x) dx =\lim_{n \to \infty} I_n $ where $I_n =\Delta\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} f(a+k\Delta) $ and $\Delta =\Delta(a, b, n) =\dfrac{b-a}{n} $.
But, $I_n =\Delta\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} f(a+k\Delta) =\dfrac{b-a}{n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} f(a+k\dfrac{b-a}{n}) =(b-a)A_n $, so $A_n =\dfrac1{b-a}I_n $.
Taking the limit, the average value is the integral divided by the length of the interval.