Why does $a\times b=b\times a$ for $a,b \in \mathbb{N}$ ?
I always got told that it is the case, and it seems to be, but is there a proof for it. If we start with $a,b \in \mathbb{N}$ then I could try to work out $\mathbb{Z}$ then $\mathbb{Q}$ then $\mathbb{R}$ then $\mathbb{C}$.
As far as I know $a\times b = \underbrace{b+b+ \ldots +b}_{a\text{ times}}$ .
But why would that necessarily equal $\underbrace{a+a+ \ldots +a}_{b\text{ times}}$ .
I know the way to explain it to 12 year old children is by relating it to areas. But I am not quite satisfied with that explanation.

here $a$ and $b$ are interchangeable because you can always rotate the image by $90°$ while keeping the same area.
This is something my friends and I have had big discussions over. First I tried to figure it out myself, but I didn't get far at all. I also brought it to my teachers and a friend doing a BMath, but all they said is that it is an interesting and strange question. I am not in university yet, so I'm sorry if this is a 'bad' question.

It's a good question. You must keep in mind that, in order to prove with rigour something about multiplication, there are two things that must be done:
Then we expect to be able to deduce from these axioms that multiplication is commutative.
The most widely used set of axioms for the natural numbers are the Peano axioms. Within this system, you can define multiplication (assuming that the sum of two natural numbers has already been defined) as the only operation such that:
Using this, you can indeed prove that the multiplication is commutative. I shall do it assuming that addition is commutative (this should be proved too, of course).
Proposition 1: If $n\in\mathbb N$, then $1\times n=n$.
Proof: For $n=1$, this simply asserts that $1\times1=1$, which is true, by the definition of multiplication.
Let $n\in\mathbb N$ and assume that $1\times n=n$. Then\begin{align}1\times(n+1)&=1\times n+1\\&=n+1.\end{align}
Proposition 2: If $m,n\in\mathbb N$, then $(m+1)\times n=m\times n+n$.
Proof: Let $m\in\mathbb N$. If $n=1$, this just asserts that $m+1=m+1$, which is trivially true. Now, let $n\in\mathbb N$ and assume that $(m+1)\times n=m\times n+n$. Then\begin{align}(m+1)\times(n+1)&=(m+1)\times n+m+1\\&=m\times n+n+m+1\\&=m\times n+m+n+1\text{ (addition is commutative)}\\&=m\times(n+1)+n+1\end{align}
Proposition 3: In $\mathbb N$, the multiplication is commutative. In other words, if $m,n\in\mathbb N$, $m\times n=n\times m$.
Proof: If $m\in\mathbb N$, then both $m\times1$ and $1\times m$ are equal to $m$ (because of the definition of multiplication and of the proposition 1).
Now, let $n\in\mathbb N$ and suppose that $m\times n=n\times m$. Then\begin{align}m\times(n+1)&=m\times n+m\\&=n\times m+m\\&=(n+1)\times m,\end{align}by proposition 2.