In many books I read I found isomorphism defined as a 'bijective homomorphism'.
I do not understand why is it that existence of inverse or order preserving requires the property of a homomorphism, i.e, $f(a+b)=f(a) \circ f(b)$ since $+$ and $\circ$ need not even be defined.
Surely I can just look at order preserving mapping over sets where $a \circ b$ is not even defined? Is that just a requirement in ring isomorphism? Many thanks
In order to define a homomorphism both sets must have the algebraic structure you want to, otherwise it doesn't make sense to say that $f(a+b)=f(a)\circ f(b)$.
An homomorphism is a function that preserves the algebraic structure you're working with, so when you have a bijective homomorphism (isomorphism) between two groups, rings, modules, or whatever, you're basically saying that viewed as a group, ring, module, or whatever, they are essentially the same: as sets they are, and the algebraic operations among their elements are also equivalent.