Why does $\int_0^1 \frac 1 { \sqrt{ x (1 - x) } } \, \mathrm d x = \pi$?

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I was wondering why the following is true:

$$\int_0^1 \frac 1 { \sqrt{ x (1 - x) } } \, \mathrm d x = \pi$$

It is easy to obtain this result by doing a trig substitution but it's messy and not very enlightening. What is the quickest or most elegant method? I am convinced there is a cleverer way if only because the integral evaluates to $\pi$ - there must be a nice reason for this.

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Let $x=u^2$, $dx = 2 u \,du $. Then the integral is

$$2 \int_0^1 \frac{du}{\sqrt{1-u^2}} $$

Now let $u=\sin{t}$, $du = \cos{t} \, dt$. Then the integral is

$$2 \int_0^{\pi/2} dt \frac{\cos{t}}{\cos{t}} = 2 \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi$$

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The integral equals $$ \mathrm{B}(1/2,1/2) = \frac{\Gamma(1/2)\Gamma(1/2)}{\Gamma(1)} = \frac{\sqrt \pi \sqrt \pi}{1} = \pi. $$