I was wondering why the following is true:
$$\int_0^1 \frac 1 { \sqrt{ x (1 - x) } } \, \mathrm d x = \pi$$
It is easy to obtain this result by doing a trig substitution but it's messy and not very enlightening. What is the quickest or most elegant method? I am convinced there is a cleverer way if only because the integral evaluates to $\pi$ - there must be a nice reason for this.
Let $x=u^2$, $dx = 2 u \,du $. Then the integral is
$$2 \int_0^1 \frac{du}{\sqrt{1-u^2}} $$
Now let $u=\sin{t}$, $du = \cos{t} \, dt$. Then the integral is
$$2 \int_0^{\pi/2} dt \frac{\cos{t}}{\cos{t}} = 2 \frac{\pi}{2} = \pi$$