In many areas of math one can talk about types of closure: Subsets of sets with binary operations can be closed under that binary operation, subsets of topological spaces can be closed, sets of ordinals can be closed.
There seems to be a common thread between many of these: the intersection of these structures is always a structure of the same kind. For example, if $A,B\subseteq(S,*)$ are closed under the binary operation $*$, then so is their intersection. Often we can even say more: the arbitrary intersection of subgroups is a subgroup, etc. The intersection of $<\kappa$ club subsets of $\kappa$ is club, although the "ub" is unimportant - the intersection can probably be arbitrary if we only require closure. The intersection of $\sigma$-algebras is a $\sigma$-algebra, although I think this just a consequence of the binary operation example. Filters have the finite intersection property. The intersection of closed sets in a topological space is closed (one might simply see this as a consequence of De Morgan, but I think it is similar to the other examples when viewing closed sets as those which contain all their limit points as opposed to complements of open sets).
Many examples of these kinds are very, very easy to prove, often following straight from the definitions. So much so that I might hesitate to make any comment on them in the first place, were it not for my inability to formally identify what exactly it is in all these structures that forces them to have this intersection-closure property. And maybe it's nothing at all, and I'm just cherry picking (after all, several structures aren't closed under intersection, like open sets, cardinality, etc).
So my question: Is there a generalized "closedness" property which encompasses these examples as well as several others? Maybe the property is more general than intersection of sets? I gave several set-theoretic examples but that is only due to my mathematical exposure, and I'm not just asking about those in set theory. Maybe there are even equivalent notions of "intersection" and "closure" outside of a set-theoretic context.
Edit: As user yoyostein mentioned, maybe there is a categorical perspective on this. At the risk of exposing my severe lack of expertise: my thoughts are to define a "categorical inclusion morphism" generalizing the inclusion morphism from a subset to a set. Then fixing $A,B$ we take the category whose objects $(f_{1},g_{1},X)$ consist of these inclusion maps $f_{1}:X\rightarrow A$, $f_{2}:X\rightarrow B$ and whose morphisms are the usual commutative diagrams. Then $A\cap B$ would be final in this category, and so these "closed" structures would really be those for which this intersection construction exists in their respective categories. Any chance this is going anywhere?
In the answer here user Stahl gives a categorical explanation for why this is the case for many algebraic structures. Unfortunately, I'm not familiar enough with category theory to tell if what Stahl has written generalizes to "less algebraically-motivated" structures like topological spaces or club sets (actually, I think those are topological), but I'd guess in many cases the properties of the categories he's mentioning hold elsewhere like in $\mathsf{Top}$.
The top-voted answers are OK, but also very incomplete and a bit circular.
I mean sure, there's a standard theory about how closure operators (which are monotone functions satisfying $A \leq \mathrm{cl}\, A, \: \mathrm{cl} \,\mathrm{cl}\, A \leq \mathrm{cl} A$) and closure systems (which are collections of sets closed under intersection, aka Moore families) are the same thing. And, yes it's good to know about this bijection.
At the same time, merely describing this bijection doesn't really explain why we ended up calling these things closure operators and/or closure systems in the first place. Here's a hypothetical Q&A to illustrate my point:
To complete the discussion, what we need is theorem to explain why we keep getting Moore families whenever we're interested in subsets that are closed under certain operations. This will only make sense if you know some category theory, so make sure you look into that.
Whenever $X$ is a set and $A$ is a subset, write $\eta_{X,A} : A \rightarrow X$ for the inclusion function defined by $a \in A \mapsto a \in X$. With that notation in place, here's the theorem you're look for:
Example 1. To show that subgroups of a group $G$ form a Moore family, let $I = \{\mathrm{law},\mathrm{identity},\mathrm{inverse}\}.$ Let the $F_i$ denote the following endofunctors on $\mathbf{Set}$ respectively: $F_\mathrm{law} = \Box^2, F_\mathrm{identity} = \Box^0, F_\mathrm{inverse} = \Box^1.$ Let the $f_i$ denote the following functions respectively $$f_{\mathrm{law}} = (x,y \in G \mapsto \{xy\})$$ $$f_{\mathrm{identity}} = (\{1_G\})$$ $$f_{\mathrm{inverse}} = (x \in G \mapsto \{x^{-1}\})$$
It can be seen that a subset of $G$ is closed with respect to this data if and only if it's a subgroup in the usual sense of the word. Hence by the Moore family master theorem, the collection of subgroups of $G$ necessarily forms a Moore family.
Example 2. To show that the closed subsets of a convergence space $X$ form a Moore family, let $I = \{\mathrm{lim}\}$. Let $F_\mathrm{lim}$ denote the filter endofunctor $\Phi$. Let $f_\mathrm{lim} : \Phi X \rightarrow \mathcal{P}(X)$ denote the function that returns the set of all limit points of a filter. Then the closed sets with respect to this data are precisely the closed sets of the convergence space in the usual sense of the word, and we conclude these form a Moore family by the master theorem.
Example 3. I claim that the uppersets of a poset $P$ form a Moore family. Let $I = \{\mathrm{up}\}$ and let $F_\mathrm{up} = \mathrm{id}_\mathbf{Set}$. Let $f_{\mathrm{up}} : P \rightarrow \mathcal{P}(P)$ by defined by $p \mapsto \{x \in P : x \geq p\}$. By the Moore family master theorem, the desired result follows.
Proof of the master theorem. Let $J$ denote a set and suppose $A_j$ is a family of closed subsets of $X$. We need to show that $C := \bigcap_{j \in J} A_j$ is closed. Consider $i \in I$. Our goal is to prove that $$\forall t \in F_i(C) : f^C_i(t) \subseteq C.$$ Consider $t \in F_i(C)$. We need to show that $f^C_i(t) \subseteq C.$ That is, we're trying to show that $$f^C_i(t) \subseteq \bigcap_{j \in J} A_j.$$ Becayse of what intersection means, it's enough to show that $$\forall j \in J : f^C_i(t) \subseteq A_j.$$ So consider $j \in J$. It's enough to prove $f^C_i(t) \subseteq A_j.$ Since $A_j$ is closed, we know that $f^{A_j}_i(F_i(\eta_{A_j,C})(t)) \subseteq A_j.$ Thus, it's enough to show that $$f^C_i(t) \subseteq f^{A_j}_i(F_i(\eta_{A_j,C})(t)).$$ But if you unpack the definitions, you'll see that this reduces to showing $F_i(\eta_{X,C}) = F_i(\eta_{X,A_j} \circ \eta_{A_j,C}),$ which is trivial. QED.