My textbook says that
If $f(x)$ is piecewise continuous on $(a,b)$ and satisfies $f(x) = \frac{1}{2} [f(x_{-})+f(x_{+})]$ for all $x\in(a,b)$, and if $f(x_{0})\neq 0$, then $|f(x)|>0$ on some interval containing $x_{0}$.
Why is this true?
Edit:
My attempt to prove this claim:
Suppose $f \in PC (a,b), f (x) = \frac{1}{2} [f(x-) + f(x+)]$, and $f(x_{0}) \neq 0$ for some $x_{0} \in (a,b)$.
Case I: If $f$ is continuous at $x_{0}$, then by the definition of continuity, there is a neighborhood $U$ containing $x_{0}$ where $f(x)\neq0$ for $x \in U$.
Case II: If $x_{0}$ is a point of discontinuity, then because $f$ is piecewise continuous, the values $$f(x-)=\lim_{\varepsilon\to0+} f(x-\varepsilon), \quad f(x+) = \lim_{\varepsilon \to 0+} f(x+\varepsilon)$$
always exist. For fixed $x_{0} \in (a,b)$ such that $f(x_{0})\neq0$, the condition $f(x_{0}) = \frac{1}{2} [f(x_{0}^{-}) + f(x_{0}^{+})]$ implies that $f(x_{0}^{-})$ and $f(x_{0}^{+})$ are not simultaneously zero. Then:
II.i) if $f(x_{0}^{-})$ is zero, choose the interval $[x_{0},x_{0}+\varepsilon)$.
II.ii) if $f(x_{0}^{+})$ is zero, choose the interval $[x_{0}-\varepsilon, x_{0})$.
II.iii) if $f(x_{0}^{-}), f(x_{0}^{+})$ are not zero, choose the interval $(x_{0}-\varepsilon, x_{0}+\varepsilon)$.
When $\ f(x_0)>0\ $ then $\ f(x_-)> 0\ $ or $\ f(x_+) > 0. $ Thus, either $\ f\ $ is positive in an interval $\ (x_0-h;x_0)\ $ or in $\ (x_0;x_0+h)\ )$, respectively (or even for both), for certain $\ h>0.$
Remark 1: One may add $\ x_0\ $ to the considered intervals.
Remark 2: The result is more general, the assumption about piecewise continuity can be replaced by a weaker (and much more elegant). It is enough to assume that both limits $\ f(x_-)\ $ and $\ f(x_+)\ $ exist for every $\ x\in(a;b).$ And let's keep the other assumptions intact.