Why is it that
$$ \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{\pi^n}{n!} = e^\pi \quad ?$$
I think it has to do with the gamma function, but I'm not sure how that would work.
Why does? It actually doesn't. That would be true if you had the infinite series:
$$\sum_{n = 0}^{+\infty} \dfrac{\pi^n}{n!} = e^{\pi}$$
Yet your sum is finite, and we have in general:
$$\sum_{n = 0}^M \dfrac{a^n}{n!} = \frac{e^a \Gamma (M+1,a)}{M!}$$
Where $\Gamma(\cdot, \cdot)$ denotes the incomplete Euler Gamma function.
It is just the exponential series: Since $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty{x^n \over n!}=\exp(x),$$ replacing $x$ with $\pi$ delivers the desired equation.
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Why does? It actually doesn't. That would be true if you had the infinite series:
$$\sum_{n = 0}^{+\infty} \dfrac{\pi^n}{n!} = e^{\pi}$$
Yet your sum is finite, and we have in general:
$$\sum_{n = 0}^M \dfrac{a^n}{n!} = \frac{e^a \Gamma (M+1,a)}{M!}$$
Where $\Gamma(\cdot, \cdot)$ denotes the incomplete Euler Gamma function.