Why does $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos x^n}{n}$ converge on $-1\le x \lt 1 $, and uniformly converge on $(-1,0)$

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Given the series:

$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos x^n}{n}$$

This is similar to

$$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^n}{n}$$

This series converges on $-1 \le x \lt 1$ and converges uniformly on $(-1,0)$

If I use the root test, for the above series, I get

$$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(x^n)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{(n)^{\frac{1}{n}}} =\left(\frac{x}{1}\right)=x$$

And then if $|x|\lt 1$ it converges, greater than $1$ diverges and $x=1$ we get a known series that doesn't converge. What am I doing wrong here?

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The series is not "similar" to the series $\sum_{n\ge 1}\frac{x^n}{n}$.

Note that for $|x|<1$, $-1<x^n<1$, with $\lim_{n\to \infty}x^n=0$.

Therefore, we have for $|x|<1$

$$\sum_{n=1}^N \frac{\cos(x^n)}{n}=\sum_{n=1}^N \left(\frac{1+O\left(x^{2n}\right)}{n}\right)$$

which diverges by comparison to the harmonic series.