For $1$ it would be $1$ since $1$ is $k$, for $2$ it would be $4$ because $2(1)+2 = 4$ for $3$ it would be $9$ because $2(1) + 2(2) + 3 = 9$, so why is this? I would also like to add that the series is convergent to $1+3+5+\ldots+(2n-1)$.
2026-04-12 19:45:37.1776023137
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Why does the exponent function $= 2\cdot 1+2\cdot 2+2\cdot 3+\ldots + 2\cdot(k-1) + k = k^2$?
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I believe what you're asking is why the identity
$$2(1+2+\cdots + (k-1)) + k = k^2$$
holds for all positive integers $k$. This follows directly identity $1+ 2 + \cdots + n = \frac{n(n+1)}{2}$, since
$$ 2(1 + 2 + \cdots + (k-1)) = 2\frac{(k-1)k}{2} = k^2 - k $$
so
$$ 2(1 + 2 + \cdots + (k-1)) + k = (k^2 - k) + k = \boxed{k^2} .$$
Prove by induction. Suppose it is true of $k$. Then
$2(1+2+\cdots+k)+(k+1)=[2(1+2+\cdots+(k-1))+k]+k+(k+1)=k^2+2k+1=(k+1)^2$