Why does the following summation equivalence hold true?

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$$ \sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j=i}^{n}(j-i)=\sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j^{\prime}=0}^{n-i} j^{\prime}=\sum_{i=1}^{n} \sum_{j^{\prime}=1}^{n-i} j^{\prime} $$

Can someone explain to me how we got from the first to the second double summation?