$$ \int_{1}^{\infty} x^p \,dx $$
For the above integral, it was defined in class that this diverges for $$p \leq 1$$ but if $p$ is $0$, then wouldn't that mean $1/1$ which is $1$ and thus a number, so the function would actually converge in the $$p \leq 1$$ interval. Why does it diverge?
Let’s see why with a simple power rule:
$$\int_1^\infty x^p dx=\frac{x^{p+1}}{p+1}\bigg|_0^\infty=\frac{1}{p+1}\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{p+1}-\frac{1}{p+1}$$
The limit here matters most:
This immediately implies that $p\ne 1$. Let’s do each case:
$p<-1$:
$$\frac{1}{p+1}\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{p+1}=\frac{0}{p+1}=0$$
$p>-1$:
$$\frac{1}{p+1}\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{p+1}=\frac{\infty}{p+1}=\infty$$
Now let’s try $p=\frac12$:
$$\frac 23\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{\frac32>1}=\infty$$
p=0:
$$1\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{1}=\infty$$
$p=i$:
$$\frac{1}{i+1}\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{i+1}=(1+i)\infty$$
$p=i-1$:
$$-i\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{i-1+1}\in [-1,1](1+i)$$
$p=i-2$:
$$\frac{1}{i-1}\lim_{x\to\infty} x^{p+1}=0$$
Ignoring other possible values of $p$, our final answer is:
$$\int_1^\infty x^p dx=-\frac{1}{p+1},\text{Re}(p)<-1$$
If $p=-1$, then see this proof for
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