Does anyone have a proof / mathematical explanation to why the Laplace transform of a function of $\mathbb{L}^2(0,\infty )$ belongs to the Hardy space?
Any guidance would be fantastic! I cant find anything clear online that makes sense to me .
2026-03-26 04:33:16.1774499596
Why does the Laplace transform of a function in L2 belong in the Hardy space?
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