I am trying to compute the integral
$$ I = \int\limits_1^\infty e^{-t x} \sqrt{t} J_1\!\left(2 \sqrt{t}\right) \mathrm{d} t $$
which I encountered in my research. Now, I noticed that it has the same form as the Laplace transform, if only that lower integration limit were 0 instead of 1. I thought I could apply the shift theorem:
$$ f\!\left(t\right) = \sqrt{t} J_1\!\left(2 \sqrt{t}\right) $$
$$ I = \int\limits_1^\infty e^{-t x} f\!\left(t\right) \Theta\!\left(t\right) \mathrm{d} t = e^{-x} \int\limits_0^\infty e^{-t x} f\!\left(t + 1\right) \Theta\!\left(t + 1\right) \mathrm{d} t $$
My logic is that, in the first integral, since $t > 0$ always, it doesn't matter if we insert the Heaviside theta function; the second step is just a linear change of variables.
As far as I can tell, this is the right form for the Laplace transform of a shifted function except that the shift $a$ is supposed to satisfy $a > 0$ where $f\!\left(t - a\right)$ is the shifted function. Numerically, if I choose a value for $x$, I can do this integral, and the formula above holds:
(* the target function *)
f[t_] := Sqrt[t] BesselJ[1, 2 Sqrt[t]]
(* the original integral *)
With[{x = 1},
NIntegrate[Exp[-t x] f[t], {t, 1, Infinity}, AccuracyGoal -> 5]]
(* the shifted integral *)
With[{x = 1},
Exp[-x] NIntegrate[
Exp[-t x] f[t + 1] HeavisideTheta[t + 1], {t, 0, Infinity},
AccuracyGoal -> 5]]
>> 0.175032
>> 0.175032
However, the Laplace transform of $f\!\left(t\right)$ is given by
$$ F\!\left(x\right) = \frac{e^{-1/x}}{x^2} $$
and the Wikipedia table says that
$$ \mathcal{L}\!\left[f\!\left(t - a\right) \Theta\!\left(t - a\right)\right] = e^{-a x} F\!\left(x\right) $$
The factors of $e^{-x}$ and $e^x$ cancel, and I'm left with
With[{x = 1}, Exp[-1/x] / x^2 // N]
>> 0.135335
I get a different answer. I suspect this all has something to do with my shift being positive, but I don't understand conceptually why that should be a problem, since I never assumed $a > 0$ explicitly. I appreciate any help solving this problem.
The Laplace transform of $t \mapsto u(t-c) f(t)$ for $c>0$ has no simple relationship with that of $f$, intuitively because some of the information about $f$ on $[0,\infty)$ has been destroyed. The shift theorem applies to $u(t-c) f(t-c)$.