I'm rather comfortable with $\varepsilon$-$N$ proofs in real analysis, but I'm taking a complex analysis course and (even in real analysis) the $\varepsilon$-$\delta$ proofs still confuse me a bit.
So we're told to prove that $\lim_{z\to z_0}\mathrm{Re}(z)=\mathrm{Rz}(z_0)$.
The proof goes as follows:
Let $z=x+iy$ and $z_0=x_0+iy_0$. Then $\mathrm{Re}(z) = x$, and $\mathrm{Re}(z_0)=x_0$, and $$\left|\mathrm{Re}(z)-\mathrm{Re}(z_0)\right|= \left|x-x_0\right|<\epsilon$$ If $\delta=\epsilon$, then $\left|\mathrm{Re}(z)-\mathrm{Re}(z_0)\right|<\epsilon$ when $\left|z-z_0\right|<\delta$, $\forall \epsilon > 0$.
To me, this doesn't seem to actually be proving anything. Is there a (hidden) assumption that $x\to z$ and $x_0\to z_0$?
Note that $$|z - z_0| = |(x-x_0) + i(y-y_0)| = \sqrt{(x-x_0)^2 + (y-y_0)^2} <\delta$$ implies that $$|x-x_0| =\sqrt{(x-x_0)^2} < \delta.$$ What this shows is that if we choose $\delta = \epsilon$ (for whatever $\epsilon>0$ was given to us) then $|z-z_0| < \delta$ implies that $|\text{Re}(z)-\text{Re}(z_0)| = |x-x_0|<\epsilon$.