Could someone explain the last equality for me?
Source: MWG Microeconomic Theory
2026-03-27 20:24:45.1774643085
Why does this equality hold (integrals)?
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This follows because $c=-h_1(p_1^0 + t, \bar{p}_{-1},u^1)$ is a constant with respect to $p_1$, so when we integrate it we just get $$\int_{a}^{a + t} c\ dx = xc\big|_a^{a+t} = (a+t)c-ac = tc$$