When I first looked at the problem $\frac{1}{i}$ I reasoned: $$(\frac{1}{\sqrt{-1}})^2=(\frac{1}{\sqrt{-1}})(\frac{1}{\sqrt{-1}})=\frac{1}{-1}=-1$$ So $$(\frac{1}{\sqrt{-1}})^2=-1$$ And if you square root both sides of the equation you get $$\frac{1}{\sqrt{-1}}=\sqrt{-1}$$ Now I realize this reasoning from here: $$\frac{1}{i}=\frac{i}{i^2}=\frac{i}{-1}=-i$$ But how can $\frac{1}{i}$ equal $i$ and $-i$ at the same time?
I understand that the answer will probable be: we really don't know much about $i$.
Here, look at the function $f(x) = \sqrt{x}$ in Desmos: https://www.desmos.com/calculator/odlrlh9ozn
Notice anything? It is only defined over $[0, \infty)$. This also means that an identity of square roots like $$\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b} = \sqrt{ab}$$ is only defined for non-negative numbers. So when you are squaring $i$ you are essentially doing $$i^2 = \sqrt{-1}\sqrt{-1} = \sqrt{(-1)(-1)} = 1$$ but also $$(-1^\frac{1}{2})^{2}=-1^{1}=-1$$ This "phenomenon" is not a phenomenon at all; it is a contradiction because negative numbers are not defined on the domain of the square root function. Imaginary numbers on not included in the set of all real numbers, so no wonder they don't act at all like real numbers!