$$\frac{\sin(\alpha)+\sin(3\alpha)+\sin(5\alpha)}{\cos(\alpha)+\cos(3\alpha)+\cos(5\alpha)} = \tan(3\alpha) \tag1$$
I've proven this trigonometric identity by subtracting the RHS from both sides and then applying the rule $$\sin(\alpha+\beta) = \sin(\alpha)\cos(\beta)+\cos(\alpha)\sin(\beta)$$
Now, $$\frac{\sin(3\alpha)}{\cos(3\alpha)} = \tan(3\alpha) \tag2$$ is trivially true, and since $(1)$ is true as well, it seems like $$\sin(\alpha)+\sin(5\alpha)=0 \qquad\text{and}\qquad \cos(\alpha)+\cos(5\alpha)=0 \tag3$$ should be true, but they obviously aren't.
So my question is:
Why does $(1)$ does not imply $(3)$?
I feel it's something trivial, but I just can't figure it out.
Let's look at a simple example to see why it isn't true.
Let $\alpha=\dfrac{\pi}{2}$, then $$ \begin{align*} \sin \alpha + \sin 5\alpha &=\sin \dfrac{\pi}{2} + \sin \dfrac{5\pi}{2}\\ &=1+1\\ &=2 \not= 0. \end{align*} $$