Consider the real interval $[0,1)$, this is partially ordered set (totally ordered actually). This set has a upper bound like $1$, and according to Zorn's Lemma each partially ordered set with a upper bound should have at least one maximal element. However, in this set there is no maximal element, i.e., element that is greater than every element of the set because you can be as close as to $1$. I am should I don't understand Zorn's Lemma. Please Help!!
2026-04-06 01:22:34.1775438554
Why doesn't Zorn's lemma apply to $[0,1)$?
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As a partial order $[0,1)$ has no upper bound. Sure $1$ is an upper bound of $[0,1)$ in $[0,1]$ or in $\Bbb R$. But that is not the same partial order. You are not allowed to go to larger partial orders when you apply Zorn's lemma.
So $[0,1)$ has many chains without upper bounds. E.g. $[0,1)$ itself.