In my book, the defination of Fourier transform is $$F(\lambda)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(t)e^{i\lambda t}dt$$ While the reverse one is: $$f(x)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}F(\lambda)e^{-i\lambda t}dt$$ But in other place (here as well), I always encounter another "just on the contrary" system like: $$F(\lambda)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}f(t)e^{-i\lambda t}dt$$ You can see that the sign of exponential part is changed.
Why will this happen?
As long as you don't consider the inverse transformation it is unimportant whether you write $e^{i\lambda t}$ or $e^{-i\lambda t}$ in the definition of $F$.
As soon as you look at $F$ and $F^{-1}$ at the same time you have to put a minus sign either in the definition of $F$ or in the resulting $F^{-1}$. This is so because the Fourier transform is sort of a "$90^\circ$ rotation, or multiplication by $i$, in function space", and $(i)\cdot(i)\ne 1$, but $(i)\cdot(-i)=1$.