So, I am reading Steve Awodey "Category Theory", and what he claims is that if category has finite products and equalizers then it has terminal object. I am not so sure why is this true. I mean, he says "a category", which can be large. So, a terminal object is a product of all objects in a category, so possibly infinite products also have to exist. Why is this true? Thanks!
2026-03-29 12:12:14.1774786334
Why having finite products and equalizers implies having terminal object?
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The terminal object is not the product of all objects, it is the product of no objects. Already having finite products implies having a terminal object, by taking the product of the empty set of objects.
Why is the terminal object the empty product? See this question.